What stands out with one of the more recent Bill Cosby allegations is that this accuser claims that the two were in a consensual relationship with each other. If true, it would beg the question why would Cosby feel the need to drug a woman if the sex was consensual? Dr. Drew digs up an old interview clip where Cosby talks about “Spanish fly.” Cosby goes into actual detail, talking about taking a drop equal to the head of a pin and putting it in a girl’s drink. He’s detailed enough to correct Larry King that the type of drink wouldn’t matter. The girl would drink it and then Cosby describes the rest as “Hello America…”
In 2003 Andrew Luster, the great-grandson of cosmetics giant Max Factor & heir to its fortune, was sent to prison for drugging women and then raping them while they were unconscious. He was a good looking guy, had money, and probably had no problem getting sex. So why did he feel he had to drug the women (and in his case, film it)? So far there’s no proof to the allegations involving Bill Cosby other than the words of his accusers but if he did drug the women, why would he have done it? He was a famous celebrity, had money, and likely had no problem getting sex either.
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